FINDING TRUTH
God's inspired word is the standard for all that is true before God--not even the opinions of highly intelligent men. Let's consider some vital Christian doctrines in search of truth in harmony with the one genuine Christian faith. In this case we'll use the King James Version (KJV).
Finding Truth
1. What does God’s word say in the 37th Psalm regarding God’s purpose for the earth?
1. GOD’S PURPOSE FOR EARTH. What is God’s purpose for the Earth and mankind—what have you learned thus far in your study of God’s word? Do you believe that God would burn up the earth, or rather, as King David’s inspired words at Psalm 37:9-11,29 (KJV, King James Version) states, that “evildoers shall be cut off: but those that wait upon the LORD, they shall inherit the earth...29 The righteous shall inherit the land, and dwell therein for ever.” Are you having difficulty believing this, or are you convinced of God’s purpose for the earth?
2. (a) What does it mean that God’s “word is truth,” as stated by Jesus or Jehoshalz? (b) What illustration is given to aid understanding of how Bible doctrine should be examined? (c) What should we do if a verse we read in God’s word doesn’t seem to agree with our belief?
2. GOD’S WORD TRUTH. If you’re convinced that God has a purpose for the earth, then reasonably you may wonder about heavenly life. Are you convinced, as Jesus or Jehoshalz (his more accurate name, from Hebrew, truly meaning "Jehovah (or Jehovalz) is Salvation". Still, due to the nature of this article, and to avoid unnecessary confusion, let's use the one evidently given him by Caesar, as in the KJV, quoted throughout) said in prayer regarding his disciples, “17 Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.” (John 17:17, KJV). Do you believe that God’s word is truth? This means that “16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.” (2Timothy 3:16-17, KJV) Do you believe this? We can thus conclude by the witness of both Jesus and Paul that God’s word is not contradictory—the Scriptures are all in agreement with God’s expressed will, and thus when we accept doctrine, we should believe the teachings that are in harmony with ALL scripture. Thus, learning the teachings of God’s word is like putting the pieces of a puzzle together—each teaching, each doctrine should fit into the entire picture, giving us the complete beautiful picture of God’s purpose. If one scripture does not seem to agree with our belief, should we merely ignore it, or throw it out as if it doesn’t count, or rather, should we reexamine it, seeking an understanding of the verse that agrees with the rest of God’s word? As 1Timothy 2:3-4 (KJV) states, “3 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; 4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.”
3. (a) What kind of unity should all true Christians have, according to God’s word at 1Corinithians 1:10? (b) What are some questions of doctrine that we should consider, so as to find Christian unity?
3. “NO DIVISIONS AMONG YOU.” Yes, God wants as many as possible to “come unto the knowledge of the truth.” So let us examine some key doctrines, to make sure we’re believing “the truth” regarding God’s purposes. How serious is this matter of truth? Notice the words of 1Corinthians 1:10 (KJV): “10 Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment.” Let all who would consider themselves Christian give serious thought to these matters: Do all humans have an immortal soul that cannot perish, which ends up in either heaven or a fiery hell? Similarly, what do the Scriptures teach—would the God of love allow persons to be tormented in hellfire? What of heavenly life—is it for all persons, or must some qualify, and with what purpose are they receiving this particular reward? And what of the nature of God, his Son Jesus, and the holy spirit? Are they really three in one, a Trinity? Did Jesus have no beginning, as the Nicene Creed of 325 CE would forcibly imply, or was he created by God?
4-6. (a) How does the meaning of “soul” in God’s word differ from that in Greek philosophy? (b) In the Scriptures, what part of a person has personality, and, for some, can receive immortality?
4. SOUL—WHAT IS IT? Let’s begin with the matter of the soul. What is it? Is it immortal, meaning it cannot die? Or can it die? Actually the term “soul” as used in the Scriptures is entirely different from the definition we commonly think of that comes to us from Greek philosophy, as something immaterial, invisible, and immortal. In the Scriptures it is the “SPIRIT” of one with the hope of gaining heavenly life that has personality, is immaterial, invisible and can receive immortality—not the “soul.” (Romans 8:16; Matthew 5:3; 2Corinthians 7:1). Rather, the Scriptures mention “soul” in connection with BOTH humans and animals as fleshly creatures, doing physical things. The term equates to the “life” of the person, and can die. Notice God’s words at Ezekiel 18:4 (KJV): “4 Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.” When receiving the “breath of life” the first man Adam, “BECAME a living soul,” literally “a breathing creature” according to the Scripture at Genesis 2:7 (KJV) “7 And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.” So clearly God did not give Adam an invisible, immaterial soul, rather spirit—Adam BECAME a visible, material soul.
5. ENTER GREEK PHILOSOPHY. The term “soul” in God’s word, found in the Hebrew-language Scriptures as “nephesh” and in the Greek as “psyche,” is spoken of as eating (Levit 7:18), being hungry (Prove 27:7), doing work (Levit 23:30), being refreshed by cold water when tired (Prove 25:25), among many other similar things associated with the body and life of a human being. In contrast, notice the source of popular ideas about the English term “soul” from Greek philosophy. For example, the Greek philosopher Plato quoted Socrates as saying: “The soul, . . . if it departs pure, dragging with it nothing of the body, . . . goes away into that which is like itself, into the invisible, divine, immortal, and wise, and when it arrives there it is happy, freed from error and folly and fear . . . and all the other human ills, and . . . lives in truth through all after time with the gods.”—Phaedo, 80, D, E; 81, A. Is it Greek philosophy that we should be celebrating as if it were Christian? God’s word says at 1Corinthians 1:19 (KJV): “For it is written, I will destroy the wisdom of the wise, and will bring to nothing the understanding of the prudent.”
6. MORTAL SOUL, WHAT OF THE SPIRIT? Thus, while Greek philosophy gives the idea of “soul” as being something immaterial, invisible, and immortal, the Scriptures define “soul” in direct contrast, as being material, visible, and mortal—it can die. However, in the Scriptures, our “spirit” is immaterial and invisible, though for most, still mortal. When discussing the resurrection of those with the heavenly hope, the Scriptures say at 1Corinthians 15:44 (KJV): “44 It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.” And those with this hope also, after a life course of faithfulness to God and Christ, receive as declared at 1Corinthians 15:53 (KJV): “53 For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.”
7. (a) What two distinct hopes emerge as we examine God’s word carefully? (b) Basically, how do these two hopes differ, but how are they alike?
7. TWO DISTINCT HOPES. But what is the purpose of those receiving the hope of immortal heavenly life? According to the Scriptures, these are adopted as sons of God, are given proof by God of their hope and receive strong discipline from Him to prepare them for their assignment as kings and priests before mankind. (Hebrews 12:5,6; Luke 22:28-30; Romans 8:15-17). Consistently, Revelation 20:6 (KJV) speaks of those with this hope: “6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.” Thus the likes of Jesus’ apostles and Paul, and other disciples, men and women such as Lazarus, Mary, Martha, Timothy and other first century Christians all had this hope, as is expressed throughout the Christian Greek Scriptures. It should be clarified here that there has been a secondary fulfillment of the things that took place back then, on a group with another sort of "heavenly hope." Theirs is as a human king and ruler, whose work often goes unseen in a different way. Their work may, however, bring them into contact with those within the realm under such a rulership. Thus can all persons be rulers, kings, and priests? Whenever there are rulers, are there not also subjects of the rulership? The vast majority of mankind according to God’s purpose, has the marvelous hope of living in true peace and happiness on Earth, under the rulership of God’s Kingdom. (Revel 21:3,4). As Isaiah 45:18 (KJV) states: “18 For thus saith the LORD that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the LORD; and there is none else.” Our first parents were placed in a “pleasure park,” the Garden of Eden. God wants this Earth to become a Paradise. And remember "as in Heaven, also upon Earth". Do not scriptural thoughts of a "heavenly" future coincide or agree with the wonderful peaceful and parklike conditions promised by God for the earth? In fact, this language connection has been in use for a very long time! Thus two distinct hopes become clear throughout the word of God, and each one offers an everlasting future in true peace and happiness, in accord with God’s righteousness.
8. (a) Understanding both everlasting hopes for the future, what is the condition of those who have died awaiting an earthly resurrection? (b) What is God going to do with the “enemy” death?
8. “FALLEN ASLEEP.” Thus, if those going to heaven must be qualified by God as rulers in God’s kingdom, and the remainder of good people have the hope of everlasting life in a Paradise Earth, then where are those who have died? In short, most of those who have died have been ‘sleeping in death,’ but safely alive in God’s memory awaiting a resurrection. Even those with the heavenly hope in the first century are said in the Scriptures to have ‘fallen asleep’ in death, awaiting the time for their heavenly resurrection. This is found, for example, at 1Corinthians 15:6 (KJV) regarding brothers who saw Jesus after his resurrection: “6 After that, he was seen of above five hundred brethren at once; of whom the greater part remain unto this present, but some are fallen asleep.” Again, 1Thessalonians 4:14 (KJV) says this: “14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.” Thus the Scriptures speak of the resurrection hope. Acts 24:15 (KJV) says this by Paul: “15 And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be a resurrection of the dead, both of the just and unjust.” The resurrection for the majority of humans will take place during the Millennial Reign of Christ. Thus, at that time, rather than commonly reading reports of those who have died, it could become common to read of those who have been recently brought back to life! Thus, “23 ...the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.” (Romans 6:23, KJV). Yes, the promise of God is this: “8 He will swallow up death in victory; and the Lord GOD will wipe away tears from off all faces; and the rebuke of his people shall he take away from off all the earth: for the LORD hath spoken it.”—Isaiah 25:8, KJV.
9. How do we know that “the grave” is an appropriate translation of the Hebrew word “Sheol” and the Greek word “Hades” in God’s word?
9. THE TERM “HELL.”
Even the use of the term “hell” in the King James Version of the Bible can be shown to actually mean “the grave.” The Hebrew and Greek terms translated “hell” in the KJV are Hebrew “Sheol” and Greek “Hades.” Actually the KJV does translate the Hebrew term “Sheol” as “the grave” at Ecclesiastes 9:10: “10 Whatsoever thy hand findeth to do, do it with thy might; for there is no work, nor device, nor knowledge, nor wisdom, in the grave, whither thou goest.” Thus we clearly see that mankind in general goes to sleep in the grave upon death. And if the Hebrew term “Sheol” is translated “the grave” here, why not in other places, rather than “hell?” The faithful man Job believed in the resurrection, as he prayed that God conceal him in the grave (Hebrew, "Sheol"). Notice his words at Job 14:13-15 (KJV): “13 O that thou wouldest hide me in the grave, that thou wouldest keep me secret, until thy wrath be past, that thou wouldest appoint me a set time, and remember me! 14 If a man die, shall he live again? all the days of my appointed time will I wait, till my change come. 15 Thou shalt call, and I will answer thee: thou wilt have a desire to the work of thine hands.” Thus Job would wait asleep in the grave for his resurrection. We see the Hebrew and Greek terms together by comparing Psalm 16:10 with Acts 2:31, quoting Psalms. The KJV uses the term “hell” in both verses, which are referring to the time Jesus spent dead, in the “grave.” Regarding this time Jesus spent in the grave for parts of three days, Psalm reads (KJV) “10 For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell [Heb. "Sheol"]; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.” Peter quotes this verse, applying it to Jesus, in Acts (KJV): “31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell [Gr. Hades, “the grave”], neither his flesh did see corruption.” That Jesus was truly dead and didn’t spend the time in a place of torment is clear in the Scriptures, for instance, at 1Peter 1:3 (KJV): “3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead.” One more consideration is that despite fiery torment being another teaching of Greek philosophy, there was nevertheless use of the term "hell" in the Middle Ages as an underground root or potato cellar.
10. What is God’s just punishment for incorrigible evildoers, and how do we know (from God’s word)?
10. PUNISHMENT FOR EVIL. Thus, if there are heavenly rulers, and those living under the rulership of God’s Kingdom on Earth, what happens to wrongdoers? First, God wants all to turn around from such thinking and conduct, to be able to enjoy promised blessings living a peaceable and upright life. The warnings in God's word against the punishment of death should be enough to move us all to appreciate the gift of life and forgiveness through the ransom, and to understand that happiness is found within God's law—not without it. We can truly learn to trust God's instruction, word and law, and the rewards of obedience. Notice the loving will of God for all to believe in Christ at John 3:16 (KJV): “16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.” Clearly God wants no one to “perish,” or “to become destroyed or ruined: to cease to exist.” (Merriam-Webster). Rather, the genuine belief in His Son leads to "everlasting life." Is all this not reasonable? How could the God who “is love” allow for a place of torment—what loving parent would torment his child as punishment for some mistake or practice? (1John 4:8,16; Psalm 103). When the Israelites began following a terrible practice of false gods, notice Jehovah God’s reaction, as reported at Jeremiah 7:31 (KJV): “31 And they have built the high places of Tophet, which is in the valley of the son of Hinnom, to burn their sons and their daughters in the fire; which I commanded them not, neither came it into my heart.” As faithful Elihu spoke concerning God, at Job 34:12 (KJV): “12 Yea, surely God will not do wickedly, neither will the Almighty pervert judgment.”
11. (a) Why did Jesus use a setting of hellfire in providing the illustration of the rich man and Lazarus? (b) In what way is fire used in an illustrative way in the Scriptures, for example in Revelation?
11. ANOTHER TEACHING OF GREEK PHILOSOPHY. Therefore, once again, Greek philosophy, this time concerning the teaching of hellfire, has been grafted into Christian thought and teaching. It is not a Bible teaching (Romans 6:23). So why did Jesus use hellfire, one time in the Scriptures, in an illustration regarding the rich man and Lazarus? The key lies in his audience. He was speaking to Pharisees, and was trying to reach their heart regarding the Kingdom message. (Luke 16:14-15). Why is this significant? The Pharisees had adopted some Greek philosophy in their teachings, and actually believed in hellfire punishment for the wicked! This can be shown from the words of Josephus, an historian who was himself a Pharisee. According to him, the Pharisees held that only the soul was immortal and the souls of good people would be reincarnated and “pass into other bodies,” while “the souls of the wicked will suffer eternal punishment.” (Josephus “Jewish War” 2.8.14; cf. “Antiquities” 8.14-15.) Jesus was thus using their own beliefs to show them that trusting in their money-loving rich way of life was leading them into divine disfavor, while the poor and lowly ones were finding favor by obeying Christ. (Luke 16:19-31). Jesus in no way was trying to declare that God or himself would ever intend any unjust means of punishment. There has been indication that God can use something with the appearance of flame to cleanse persons of certain unholy conditions, but again this is not a tormenting punishment. Rather, fire is mentioned in the Scriptures a few times as a symbol of destruction, which is generally what happens when we put something in a fire—it is destroyed. Thus, the “lake of fire” mentioned in Revelation is said to be, or mean, “the second death.” (Revelation 20:14). One may be resurrected from his first death—but generally speaking, not from the second one--it is thus a symbol of complete destruction, something God wants none to suffer. Jesus likewise used the term “Gehenna,” which was a garbage dump where constant fire was used to burn up trash, in a similar way, to symbolize complete destruction—not tormenting hellfire. It was where the bodies of dead criminals were thrown, the warning fate of some hypocritical “scribes and Pharisees” of the first century, refusing clear evidence of God's holy spirit. There is hope that with God's mercy, such serious warnings would wake them up, before it was too late. (Matthew 23:13-15,33; also 2Peter 3:9).
TRINITY TEACHING—TRUE OR FALSE
12,13. What is the Trinity teaching, and what is it’s history?
12. HISTORY OF THE TRINITY. Now, what of the Trinity teaching? At this point let’s be reminded that God’s word is truth—not contradictory, and can be used to clarify genuine Christian doctrine (John 17:17; 2Timothy 3:16,17; 1Corinthians 1:10). Therefore any verse should be understood in a way that agrees with God’s word in it’s entirety. So what is the Trinity teaching?
The Encyclopedia Britannica (2018) explains:
“Trinity, in Christian doctrine, the unity of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, as three persons in one Godhead. Neither the word Trinity nor the explicit doctrine appears in the New Testament, nor did Jesus and his followers intend to contradict the Shema in the Hebrew Scriptures: “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD.” (Deuteronomy 6:4, KJV).
13. More specifically, the doctrine teaches that all three persons in the Trinity are co-equal and co-eternal, and are to be worshipped as God. History confirms that the doctrine took some three centuries after Christ to be formulated by intellectual men of the day. In it’s complete form this was not at the council of Nicaea in 325 CE, as this meeting was primarily concerned with the “deity” of Christ, without inclusion of the holy spirit. Now it should be here clarified that Scripturally Jesus was to become even more like God by the things he suffered or endured while on earth, preparing him to receive authority as a King, also like God. Recall Revelation, where he receives authority as King, and is called, just like God is also, 'the Beginning and the End', the 'First and the Last', the 'Alpha and the Omega' or, in English, 'the A and the Z'. So that issue about the 'deity' of the resurrected Jesus, while not to incorporate him into a Trinity of godheads (which as mentioned was not the intention of that meeting) was more legitimate than some may have realized. Questions about the holy spirit were left largely unaddressed until after the relationship between the Father and the Son was “settled” around the year 362 (Fairbairn 2009, pp. 46-47) The Trinity teaching was formulated more completely in the Nicene Creed of 381 CE. However, there is proof in the Scriptures themselves of something that many have not been aware of, an alteration of the Tetragrammaton in some places, which indicates other singular Gods associated with the name of Almighty God, evidently singular names, but together they comprise the name of God JEHOVALZ, His name literally plural throughout the Bible, carrying a meaning that acknowledges all of God's power, ability and character. Another significant fact is that the Hebrew word for 'one' actually means 'three in one' or 'three as one'. Three Gods with individual names, but effectively one God functioning together, is indicated. The names have been revealed as a scriptural threesome of character--the 'spirit, water, and blood'. The names are Jolovaz (reflecting God's spirit), Joldove (God's knowledge and power), and Jehovah (God's fulfilling promises, etc.). Evidence has surfaced that the Trinity teaching they came to recognize at that time, and the associated Nicene Creed, was NOT the Trinity teaching or Creed that has been commonly used, understood and taught in recent decades. In learning such things, why should we pause for reflection? Was God really guiding the understanding of these men, to affect the beliefs of all Christians?
14. (a) How were the first-century apostles acting as a restraint within the Christian congregation? (b) How do we know Jesus did not want his genuine disciples deeply involved in the political reform of the nation of Israel taking place following his death and resurrection?
14. APOSTLES A RESTRAINT. Did not Jesus carefully and clearly teach the truth of God’s word and will to his first-century disciples? Recall what the apostle Paul was inspired to say to overseers in Ephesus at Acts 20:29,30 (KJV) “29 For I know this, that after my departing shall grievous wolves enter in among you, not sparing the flock. 30 Also of your own selves shall men arise, speaking perverse things, to draw away disciples after them.” The term “perverse” means simply “corrupt.” The Scriptures reveal that the faithful apostles were acting as a restraint, holding back apostate teachings from the Christian congregation. However, after their deaths, their was little preventing the foretold apostasy from taking place—it was foretold that false teachings would infiltrate the congregation, misleading ones from the truth. (2Thessalonians 2:3-12). Jesus’ illustration of the wheat and the weeds shows that over time weed-like false Christians would come to be mixed with the true wheat. (Matthew 13:24-30, 36-43). Recall that Paul said that “grievous wolves” would enter among the congregation, “not sparing the flock.” The truth Jesus taught did not then please most philosophical men, as Jesus said in prayer to God: “I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes: even so, Father; for so it seemed good in thy sight.” Jesus while under heaven once refused to be made a political king, in spite of the favor of many Jews. Jesus told the Roman official Pontius Pilate “my kingdom is no part of this world.” Jesus at that time refused involvement in the Roman system of that day having so-called gods but not acknowledging the Creator. While rulers could benefit from God's law and Christian teachings, it was not God's time for such involvement. But at the Council of Nicaea it was Roman emperor Constantine who presided over the meeting.
15. (a) What did Jesus utterly refuse throughout his life and ministry? (b) In most Bibles, what is the difference between “Lord” and “LORD”?
15. TO THE GLORY OF GOD THE FATHER. The eventual goal of that Council was, despite great pagan influences, a Roman state religion of Nicene Christianity, which did occur in 380 CE, by the Edict of Thessalonica. The original Nicene Creed promoted the worship of Christ along with the Father, something that Jesus throughout his life on Earth clearly refused. As he told Satan, when being tempted, at Matthew 4:10 (KJV): “10 Then saith Jesus unto him, Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve.” The Scriptures show Jesus sought the glory of God, and not of himself, for instance in his teaching at John 7:18 (KJV): “18 He that speaketh of himself seeketh his own glory: but he that seeketh his glory that sent him, the same is true, and no unrighteousness is in him.” Jesus clearly taught that the one to be praised and worshipped is only God the Father, Jehovah. Jesus was extremely careful to avoid giving anyone the impression that he was any more than the son of God. In no way did he teach that he was God, although many decades later John would express the godlike role Jesus would come to have as representing God. Philippians 2:11 (KJV) says “every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” While Jesus is a Mighty King and “Lord,” one must recognize he is separate from his God and Father, who, in many translations, is also called “LORD.” (Compare John 20:17) In the latter instance, the term is usually printed in all capital letters (“LORD”), and is used to substitute the Tetragrammaton that appears in the original Bible manuscripts, which is God’s personal name, commonly in English ,“JEHOVAH," or with mounting evidence, more accurately "JEHOVALZ." (Psalm 83:18; 1Corinthians 8:6). It should be noted, however, that in some Bibles these lowercase and capital forms are occasionally confused, such as in 1Corinthians 1:31 which is quoting from Jeremiah 9:24, referencing “the LORD,” the One to be glorified (Contrast KJV with NASB, New American Standard Bible).
16. (a) What clear statement made by Jesus shows that reasonably the Son is not co-equal with the Father? (b) What example shows that he did not take credit for healings performed using God’s power?
16. IDEAS EXAMINED. What of the ideas of the Trinity that each person is co-equal, co-eternal, and all to be worshipped? Are these ideas clearly found in God’s word? Regarding the co-equal idea, what did Jesus teach about his relationship to the Father? Notice his words at John 14:28 (KJV): “28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.” He wanted his followers to understand the truth about his relation to the Father. Here we find it, just as it is common to view a father as greater—generally older and wiser—than his son. Neither did he take credit for the healings that he performed by the use of God’s power—people glorified God for their healing. Take, for instance, the time ten lepers were healed, as recorded at Luke 17:12-19. Picking up in verse 15 (KJV): “One of them, when he saw that he was healed, turned back, glorifying God with a loud voice.” While he did go on to thank Jesus, notice Jesus’ words in verse 18: “Did no one else turn back to give glory to God except this man of another nation?” Jesus was always concerned with his Father’s glory far more than his own. In this, Jesus set a fine example for all Christians, to seek God’s will and honor (1Peter 2:21).
17. (a) How does verse 18 of John chapter 1 help us understand verse 1? (b) How do the Scriptures show that Jesus was made by God, and thus had a beginning?
17. BIBLE LOGIC. So since “the Father is greater than” Jesus, they are clearly not the same, but separate and distinct. So what of John 1:1? If you are “with” someone, are you the same as that one you are with? This is not logical. The Scriptures, in their entirety, are logical. The Greek grammar in this verse allows for the final “god” to be translated as an attribute, such as “the Word was godlike,” “the Word was divine,” or with consideration of Revelation, perhaps "the Word was AsGod, or AzGod." There are several Bibles that have translated this verse in related ways. Nevertheless, drop down to verse 18 of the same chapter 1, as we examine this in the KJV: “18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” Since no man has seen God at any time, then clearly Jesus, the Word, could not have been God himself, as thousands upon thousands of men and women did see Jesus Christ. Is it not understandable that a strong belief in a false doctrine, held over centuries, can influence or color the translation of God’s word? The same verse 18 of John 1 shows that Jesus is the “only begotten” Son of God—the only one created directly by God himself. Elsewhere we find Jesus called “the firstborn of every creature.” (Colossians 1:15-17, KJV). Thus we find by examining God’s word, that Jesus is not co-equal with the Father, nor is he co-eternal, as if he has always existed. Rather God created him, and shared life with him for aeons of time, working together to make all other things. Neither did Jesus ever want to receive worship rightly due His Father, although from the description as above, he could agree to Represent God in some capacity, like or as God in some respects, AzGod. Along with becoming "the last Adam," the ransom sacrifice making possible eternal life, this could thereby fulfill the descriptions in Isaiah that he would be called "Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace." Those other ideas came as philosophies of intellectuals, not originating in the complete word of God—the source of divine truth (1Corinthians 1:27-29; Colossians 2:8).
18. (a) What did God do with some of the holy spirit He had given to Moses, and what does this example reveal as to the nature of the holy spirit?
18. WHAT OF THE HOLY SPIRIT? Since we’ve seen it’s understandable that a long-held false idea can influence the translating work of God’s word, then what of the idea that the holy spirit is not a force but a person, part of the Trinity, to be called “Holy Ghost”? It is true that the term “spirit,” (Heb ruach, Gr pneuma) meaning “breath, or wind,” can also refer to invisible angels, or spirit persons. However, throughout God’s word this term is used with reference to a powerful force of God, for instance the force that was acting upon God’s servant Moses to strengthen him for his work before God. Numbers chapter 11 shows that God took some of the spirit he was giving to Moses and distributed it to seventy chosen men, elders of the people, to assist Moses in the work of helping and judging the people. Notice how this term is used here, at Numbers 11:25 (KJV): “25 And the LORD came down in a cloud, and spake unto him, and took of the spirit that was upon him, and gave it unto the seventy elders: and it came to pass, that, when the spirit
rested upon them, they prophesied, and did not cease.” This was the same term that the KJV elsewhere translates as “Holy Ghost.” However, it is so clear that this must be referring to a force of God, that they translate it here as “the spirit.”
19. What other Scriptural examples reveal the nature of God’s holy spirit, and it’s usefulness to true Christians?
19. HOLY SPIRIT A GIFT. The same clarity is found at Acts 2:17 (KJV): “17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams.” Yes, the powerful force of God can be ‘poured out’ upon God’s servants to give them strength to accomplish His will. Peter was quoting from Joel 2:29, where we read in KJV, “And also upon the servants and upon the handmaids in those days will I pour out my spirit.” Again, it is so clear that this is referring to a force of God that they could not translate it as if a person, but rather as “my spirit.” Similar examples can be found throughout God’s word. How we need God’s powerful holy spirit in our lives to assist us in various ways, as it is compared to a good gift in Luke 11:13. (John 4:24; Galatians 5:17,22,23). Thus “Holy Ghost” is an incorrect, confusing, and misleading translation of the term “spirit” that was influenced by the false belief of the Trinity. The holy spirit is a powerful force of God that is vital for Christians to pray for, but is not to be worshipped or viewed as a real person alongside God the Father.
20. (a) How serious of a matter is it for true Christians to comprehend and embrace the truth of God’s word? (b) How many faiths should true Christians practice? (c) What should be considered if the Nicene Creed has been adopted into a Christian practice?
20. ONE FAITH. Just because a belief is commonly held, this does not of necessity make it correct. All who would consider themselves Christian should examine these matters carefully and prayerfully, to seek the truth of God’s word with an open mind, using logic and reason to embrace it. Doubly so should teachers of Christianity do so (Hebrews 13:17). And as Ephesians bears out, all true Christians should be sharing “one faith,” in spite of the diversity of where that faith originated. (Ephesians 4:5). Thus each Christian organization that still confesses the Nicene Creed as part of it’s expression of doctrine should seriously reconsider such an idea, waiting perhaps for God to clarify what should be revealed as the ORIGINAL Nicene Creed, that likely reveals more about the identity of the true God Himself, but not including Jesus or the holy spirit as that same God. Jesus worshipped the same God that we hopefully worship—not the incorrect Trinity that has been taught, but a loving Father (also actually plural in scripture), even three as One, truly united, that he rejoiced to be with. As we read at John 20:17 (KJV), after his resurrection (by God), when with his friend Mary, “17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.” Clearly, Jesus wanted his followers to continue worshipping the same loving God (also plural) that he worshipped. May we all continue serving the God of truth, JEHOVAHZ, as we become ever more united, like the twelves tribes of Israel could be, but now as Twelve Christian Tribes (or "branches") of Mankind, in the one faith, true Christianity. (1Corinthians 1:10).